PDA

View Full Version : How would you rule this?


VietSoClassic
01-16-2008, 02:58 AM
Player A has a solid ball and the 8ball, the other Player B has one strip ball left as well and Player B plays safe freezing the cueball on the 8ball given no shot to the solid ball of Player A.

Player A takes a foul by hitting the Player B strip ball into the Player A solid ball.

How would a ref call this in Vegas?

We had a talk about this how it is unsportmanship like and gets a warning or lose the game or lose the match during league play because you hit the other players ball. You could make a mistake and thought that was your ball and you hit that there to block the other balls path... right?

But at the same time, that was the only way to go because there was no way Player A could hit the solid ball and the risk to masse or go 4 rail and miss is a quick lost.

Heres the illustrated picture.
http://i5.photobucket.com/albums/y166/TeamACCA/yea.jpg

My POV, It's BCA anything goes no holds bar, if it was the only way to survive than you gotta take that shot to live a bit. When I was in APA, I ran all the balls missing the 8, he played safe and he can RUN-OUT but he had some clutters, I was stuck, so I hit his own ball to the 8ball so he can't get out so easily and I fouled like 3-4times and won that game. We even had a unidentified official come watch me play and I didn't get called for it.

If BCA Ref Official calls that as a warning, lose of game, or match... I will go crazy. The only time i can understand its a warning or whatever it is midway or beginning of the game, you hit the opponents ball to intentionally clutter the balls when you could have made some easy balls, and etc.

jbullerjr
01-17-2008, 10:36 AM
I am not a ref but I have played the BCA nationals since 94 and situations like this have come up many times over the years. I nor my opponent has ever been called for unsportsmanlike conduct for this type of shot.

Jimbo

ne14tennis
03-04-2008, 12:05 PM
Player A has a solid ball and the 8ball, the other Player B has one strip ball left as well and Player B plays safe freezing the cueball on the 8ball given no shot to the solid ball of Player A.

Player A takes a foul by hitting the Player B strip ball into the Player A solid ball.

How would a ref call this in Vegas?

We had a talk about this how it is unsportmanship like and gets a warning or lose the game or lose the match during league play because you hit the other players ball. You could make a mistake and thought that was your ball and you hit that there to block the other balls path... right?

But at the same time, that was the only way to go because there was no way Player A could hit the solid ball and the risk to masse or go 4 rail and miss is a quick lost.

Heres the illustrated picture.
http://i5.photobucket.com/albums/y166/TeamACCA/yea.jpg

My POV, It's BCA anything goes no holds bar, if it was the only way to survive than you gotta take that shot to live a bit. When I was in APA, I ran all the balls missing the 8, he played safe and he can RUN-OUT but he had some clutters, I was stuck, so I hit his own ball to the 8ball so he can't get out so easily and I fouled like 3-4times and won that game. We even had a unidentified official come watch me play and I didn't get called for it.

If BCA Ref Official calls that as a warning, lose of game, or match... I will go crazy. The only time i can understand its a warning or whatever it is midway or beginning of the game, you hit the opponents ball to intentionally clutter the balls when you could have made some easy balls, and etc.

I am a BCA National Referee,

I will assume that your description of the first shot by Player B meant to include that it was a legal shot. You didn't say it, but if all he did was freeze cue ball to the 8 ball, then that is ball-in-hand.

There is no foul for freezing balls, or shooting your opponents balls to create a problem. It's part of the game. You do what you have to do to survive.

The only ruling that could possibly come into play might be "Stalemated Game" but as long as your making an attempt to make a legal shot....that wouldn't be called either.

poolboy17
04-09-2008, 05:57 AM
There is one thing that comes to mind that I've not seen addressed.

(A) Was the cueball used to push the opponents ball, thus taking an intentional foul

OR

(B) was the opponents ball (without use of the cueball) pushed someplace?

If it is option A then the balls stay where they are and incoming player has ball in-hand. If option B took place then it IS a foul and an unsportsmanlike conduct with option of restoration.

In other words, you must contact the cueball first even if intentionally moving another players ball. It is NEVER permissible to intentionally push a numbered ball anywhere without using the cueball.

sbpoolleague
04-14-2009, 11:29 AM
The confusion here is the use of the phrase "intentional foul". Yes, the player fouled intentionally, but this type of foul does not get penalized under the "intentional foul" rule. That is reserved for things like picking up the cue ball, giving the table a hip-check, etc.

KillerCane
04-16-2009, 09:50 AM
after a while of that doesnt it get called as stalemate? ive been in a match where the 8 is hanging in the pocket and both balls are frozen to the 8, that got called as stalemate.

UWPoolGod1
04-17-2009, 08:41 AM
I would think that at that point player B can take ball in hand behind his ball and play a stop shot hooking it to his ball moving player A's ball away. This should end up in a win in two shots.

Now if the question is the sportsmanship..to me this is a legitimate defense shot and alot of times is a very effective way of keeping someone for getting out easily. A good player with ball in hand should still be able to navigate through to a break up shot. most players would do it so when it is done to them they accept it. Its the players who don't use the shot who think it is cheap and would complain.