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View Full Version : One pocket rule?


Porter
04-11-2003, 12:18 AM
I was told of a shot that I would like someone to tell me the correct ruling.

Player "A" needs one ball and he has one jawed up in his pocket. It is Blayer "B's" shot and there are several balls left on the table that make a foul shot by scratching or jumping the table a poor choice for player "B".

THE SHOT.......Player "B" pushes out a couple of inches, calls a foul on himself, and then before player "A" can react player "B" shoots again, pocketing the jawed ball and leaving the cue ball in the pocket.

It is obviously a dirty shot but is it covered in the rules?

Porter

weelie
04-11-2003, 01:52 AM
OK, I am not a one pocket player, nor do I know any official rules, but...

(IMO) If you pocket your ball in your opponents pocket when he needs one... you've lost as he doesn't need any more balls. Making a deliberate un-sportsmanlike foul does not change that.

http://www.bca-pool.com/play/ for rules...

Chucklez65
04-11-2003, 05:24 AM
In the above example...I guess it would make a difference WHERE you were playing and WHO you were playing as to whether or not player B would be allowed to walk OUT of the place after committing the foul, but it kind of falls in the category of 'accidentally' moving a ball for your convenience. A foul is a foul, so I can see that player A, if he chose to continue playing at all, would have to shoot the ball from where it sits in the pocket.

I can see myself never playing this person again. It is definitely one of those dirty shots that gives a pool player a bad name and reputation.

The rules for any given game are written for basically honest and moral people...kind of like the itty bitty lock that people put on their luggage when they fly...they are only made to keep out the honest thief, pool rules are written to assume that someone would not take advantage of the rules in this way, but on paper, the above example would be a legal foul I would think.

Well, thats my opinion.

Chucklez65

jkurjan
04-11-2003, 07:13 AM
The foul was the correct idea but from your description it was not well thought out as it cost him a ball which cost him a ball for you no matter how fast he shot.

Even though you have to react fairly quickly after a foul, the fact that your opponent immediatly shot again in my mind is also at best another (useless) foul and at worst a cheating attempt to make an offensive shot before you could legitimately approach to the table to note his first foul and pull a ball from his side (assuming he had any balls literally and figuratively) and have the new score posted.

You then have to play the shot.

By his immediate shooting and not allowing reasonable time in my mind is at worst cheating and immediate loss of game, etc. at at worse a second foul...costing him another ball...depending on the ball asusmption literally and figuratively.

My suggestion, players like this are only worth playing if the money is held by an independant 3rd party.

Jonathan

warrenpfunk
04-11-2003, 08:36 AM
If Player "A" decides to keep playing then he should take a foul and try to corner hook Player "B". Serve him some of his own medicine......:D

wp

Rickw
04-11-2003, 10:06 AM
Originally posted by Porter

Player "A" needs one ball and he has one jawed up in his pocket. It is Blayer "B's" shot and there are several balls left on the table that make a foul shot by scratching or jumping the table a poor choice for player "B".

THE SHOT.......Player "B" pushes out a couple of inches, calls a foul on himself, and then before player "A" can react player "B" shoots again, pocketing the jawed ball and leaving the cue ball in the pocket.

It is obviously a dirty shot but is it covered in the rules?

Porter

I've seen this used before. It's a way of twisting the rules. The guy that was doing it felt like this was acceptable because it was smart. I've seen this same guy playing 9 ball for big money, and win or lose, was a perfect gentleman. As far as I'm concerned, Player A should win the game because his game ball was pocketed and the cue ball did not drop in the pocket as well. Player B essentially executed two separate innings consecutively.

tom haney
04-13-2003, 01:01 PM
1. If he makes the other guy's game ball &
doesn't make the cueball the game is
over. period.
2. to dliberately shoot twice is bad
sportsmanship , & he'd get the crap
knocked out of him in my area.
3. If the cue ball does follow the game
ball in the pocket you said there were
a number a balls on the table. Yes
that game ball would come up but the
other guy would probably be straight
in with a shot. I'd make the winning
ball, collect the money, quit, & smack
him upside of his head outside of the
poolroom.

gwberry
04-13-2003, 01:23 PM
I am not a rules expert, but my interpretation would simply be to treat the second shot as exteraneous. The balls should simply be restored as closely as possible to their original position before the "illegal shot" (not the foul, but the subsequent shot) and B should suffer the usual one ball penalty for his foul, and A should shoot.

Similar things happen when (for instance) a bystander moves the balls on the table. They have to be restored to their original position.

Regards,
George

Pop And Slop
04-17-2003, 03:58 AM
Jay

Pop And Slop
04-17-2003, 03:59 AM
The second shot should not have happened and either 1) the person should lose for intentionally moving the balls or 2) replace the balls in the location they were in before the second foul. I would root for the 1st choice though, Loss of game for intentionally moving the balls.

Jay

Chucklez65
04-17-2003, 05:52 AM
Originally posted by Pop And Slop
The second shot should not have happened and either 1) the person should lose for intentionally moving the balls or 2) replace the balls in the location they were in before the second foul. I would root for the 1st choice though, Loss of game for intentionally moving the balls.

Jay

If I were the one playing, then I would agree with this - and THEN never play the 'gentleman' again.

Chucklez65

maximillion
04-18-2003, 02:59 AM
On kind of a side note, I heard another rule that if while adjusting your bridge hand over a cluster of balls you accidently moved one, that it was not a foul but the ball is to be returned to its previous location and the player does not lose his turn. Is this true?

Chucklez65
04-18-2003, 05:38 AM
Originally posted by maximillion
On kind of a side note, I heard another rule that if while adjusting your bridge hand over a cluster of balls you accidently moved one, that it was not a foul but the ball is to be returned to its previous location and the player does not lose his turn. Is this true?

I believe this would depend on what rules you are playing by. Ive read rules that say the if you touch a ball that you are jacked up over that it is a foul...In the league that I play in it is not. So be sure to get THAT rule straight right up front...heh

Chucklez65

jjinfla
04-18-2003, 05:48 AM
Porter,

What did the players in the game you mentioned do? Jake

Chucklez65
04-18-2003, 06:03 AM
Originally posted by jjinfla
Porter,

What did the players in the game you mentioned do? Jake

Now thats the best question Ive heard in this thread...heh I wish I would have thought to ask it.

Chucklez65

Porter
04-18-2003, 07:41 AM
The Player is now an older gentleman, that is well known and well respected. In his late 70's. He said he did it many years ago, took his money and left. He was not proud of it. The story came up when he had me in the same position. He did advise me against ever using the 'move'.

I have however used it once against a friend to see what he would do. There was no money involved. My friend who prides his one pocket game let it go and beat me anyway.


Porter

Pop And Slop
04-18-2003, 11:28 AM
Originally posted by maximillion
On kind of a side note, I heard another rule that if while adjusting your bridge hand over a cluster of balls you accidently moved one, that it was not a foul but the ball is to be returned to its previous location and the player does not lose his turn. Is this true?

Normallyit is not a foul (unless you're playing on T.V.) and the opponant has the job of putting them back where he/she "thinks" they were, if the player who [accidentally] moved them in the first place tries to put them back then it is a foul for intentionally moving a ball.