To start, here is the WPA Rule concerning 3 consecutive fouls...
6.14 Three Consecutive Fouls
If a player fouls three times without making an intervening legal shot, it is a serious foul. In games scored by the rack, such as nine ball, the fouls must be in a single rack. Some games such as eight ball do not include this rule.
The referee must warn a shooter who is on two fouls when he comes to the table that he is on two fouls. Otherwise a possible third foul will be considered to be only the second.
Now, my question...
For the 3-foul rule to be valid, if player A fouls, does it matter whether or not player B pockets any balls before player A makes a third consecutive foul?
The reason I ask is because last night a friend of mine told me that when he played the big Reno tournaments in the past, if player A fouls, the standing rule was that the 3-foul rule was not valid if player B pockets any ball after player A's 1st or 2nd fouls. In other words, if player A fouls, then player B MUST take ball-in-hand and play a safe, then if player A fouls again, then player B MUST take ball-in-hand and play another safe.
I told him that I did not think that this was correct. Has anyone ever played or heard of this strange rule?
6.14 Three Consecutive Fouls
If a player fouls three times without making an intervening legal shot, it is a serious foul. In games scored by the rack, such as nine ball, the fouls must be in a single rack. Some games such as eight ball do not include this rule.
The referee must warn a shooter who is on two fouls when he comes to the table that he is on two fouls. Otherwise a possible third foul will be considered to be only the second.
Now, my question...
For the 3-foul rule to be valid, if player A fouls, does it matter whether or not player B pockets any balls before player A makes a third consecutive foul?
The reason I ask is because last night a friend of mine told me that when he played the big Reno tournaments in the past, if player A fouls, the standing rule was that the 3-foul rule was not valid if player B pockets any ball after player A's 1st or 2nd fouls. In other words, if player A fouls, then player B MUST take ball-in-hand and play a safe, then if player A fouls again, then player B MUST take ball-in-hand and play another safe.
I told him that I did not think that this was correct. Has anyone ever played or heard of this strange rule?