This IPT Rule question was raised on the UK Pro9 ball forums, I figured people here can give a definitive answer. Here's the sitch:
You shoot a ball of your set towards a pocket blocked by a ball from your opponents set, hoping to make both balls in one shot. You make the opponents ball but your ball does not go in. No ball touches a rail during the shot. Is this a foul?
Under BCA rules it is not a foul as rule 4.11 would be satisfied by (1):
LEGAL SHOT On all shots (except on the break and when the table is open), the shooter must hit one of his group of balls first and (1) pocket a numbered ball.
However IPT rule 8 seems to define it as a foul, because making in an opponents ball is not listed as satisfying the requirements for a a legal shot:
8.0 Legal Shot-
A legal shot after the break occurs when:
a. The shooter pockets a legal called ball in the called pocket.
Is this correct? Can you call your opponents ball to avoid this being a foul? Has this come up in the KOTH or any of the qualifying matches yet?
You shoot a ball of your set towards a pocket blocked by a ball from your opponents set, hoping to make both balls in one shot. You make the opponents ball but your ball does not go in. No ball touches a rail during the shot. Is this a foul?
Under BCA rules it is not a foul as rule 4.11 would be satisfied by (1):
LEGAL SHOT On all shots (except on the break and when the table is open), the shooter must hit one of his group of balls first and (1) pocket a numbered ball.
However IPT rule 8 seems to define it as a foul, because making in an opponents ball is not listed as satisfying the requirements for a a legal shot:
8.0 Legal Shot-
A legal shot after the break occurs when:
a. The shooter pockets a legal called ball in the called pocket.
Is this correct? Can you call your opponents ball to avoid this being a foul? Has this come up in the KOTH or any of the qualifying matches yet?