I read in a recent Billiards digest article that one of the players in the IPT "played a saftey and knocked the last ball of his opponant into the pocket, leaving a long, almost impossible shot, on the 8." Here's the question-wouldn't not hitting your ball first be a foul, cue ball in hand for your opponant? Or is it possible that maybe the shooter combo-ed it in by first hitting his own ball. I hope my question makes sense. Thanks.
8 ball question
- Thread starter grandpapkusky
- Start date
grandpapkusky said:
It makes sense. In order to do what the article said the player would have to hit his own ball first either playing a combo to make the opponents ball or playing a billiard with the cue ball to make the opponents ball after hitting his ball first.
You are right. If he did hit the oponents ball first it would be a BIH foul.
pooltchr said:
Steve- I played in a league using IPT rules so studied them carefully. Even with those rules and playing a safety, you still have to get a legal hit on you own group and drive a ball to a rail after the hit.
Since the IPT played all called shots(like BCA), you can call a safety, pocket your own ball with a legal hit and give up the table. That was done several times in our league play.