8-ball rule question: pocket object ball in wrong pocket = ball in hand?

MrLucky said:
APA or most formats for that matter, it isn't a foul to begin with ! could you explain your explanation :confused:


I didn't say it was a foul.....................what do you want me to explain?
 
its all according to if youre playing call your shot or not.if youre not and you make a good hit then i would not consider this a foul.this is something that would need to be discussed before you start. i never heard of ball in hand playing eight ball.
 
rbgarmon said:
its all according to if youre playing call your shot or not.if youre not and you make a good hit then i would not consider this a foul.this is something that would need to be discussed before you start. i never heard of ball in hand playing eight ball.


Then you must be playing in a lot of bars where they call everything.

If you play BCA then they have ball in hand and all you have to do is call your ball and your pocket.

If you hit the other person's ball first then it is also ball in hand. If you scratch it is ball in hand.

It keeps people from playing idiotic defense. Because you have to hit one of your balls first, or else you give your opponent ball in hand.

It really is better to play with ball in hand rules.
 
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by the way, if it is considered a foul then i thought BIH had to be behind the spot on the side that was broken from and the other player must shoot at a ball ahead of the foul line. hope im making sense here
 
txplshrk said:
I didn't say it was a foul.....................what do you want me to explain?

Perhaps I misunderstood your answer the original poster asked about BIH and if this scenario required it ...

..."8-ball rule question: pocket object ball in wrong pocket = ball in hand?
If I pocket the object ball I intended to make in the wrong pocket, does my opponent has ball-in-hand? How about if i was trying to make the 3-ball, but then I made the 5-ball , but didn't sink the 3-ball. What should happen?"....
 
MrLucky said:
Perhaps I misunderstood your answer the original poster asked about BIH and if this scenario required it ...

..."8-ball rule question: pocket object ball in wrong pocket = ball in hand?
If I pocket the object ball I intended to make in the wrong pocket, does my opponent has ball-in-hand? How about if i was trying to make the 3-ball, but then I made the 5-ball , but didn't sink the 3-ball. What should happen?"....

Then it is just a loss of turn. And the opponent must shoot where the cue ball is at.

I was just stating another persons thoughts about a legal hit.

If this guys 5 ball went in, but the 3 ball didn't, and for some reason nothing hit a rail. Then it is still a legal shot, and still not ball in hand.

Understand or did I mess up on the explanation again?
 
rbgarmon said:
by the way, if it is considered a foul then i thought BIH had to be behind the spot on the side that was broken from and the other player must shoot at a ball ahead of the foul line. hope im making sense here


If you are playing by bar room rules, which sounds like you are. Then you are correct.

If you are playing by BCA rules then it is BIH, and it makes the game a lot better in my opinion.

Bar players that play the way you are talking about often argue that not calling every thing, and BIH makes it too easy.

It actually make pool better, because someone can't just hide the cue ball, or scratch on purpose. It forces them to play defense instead of just putting whitey in the hole!
 
Not a issue...

txplshrk said:
Then it is just a loss of turn. And the opponent must shoot where the cue ball is at.

I was just stating another persons thoughts about a legal hit.

If this guys 5 ball went in, but the 3 ball didn't, and for some reason nothing hit a rail. Then it is still a legal shot, and still not ball in hand.

Understand or did I mess up on the explanation again?

since a pocketed ball is never considered a illegal hit or foul (BIH) I thought there was something else you were conveying ! Got ya :)
 
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