Ok I have a question. In the table layout posted the object is to tie the 3 ball up with the 1 ball. Now this post says intentionally double hitting is unsportsmanlike conduct and should be a loss of game. In the layout posted the cueball is very close to the 3 ball, shooting straight into the 3 ball could result into an obvious double hit. Does that mean the hit on the 3ball absolutely cannot double hit, which means the player MUST shoot at the 3 ball jacked up to avoid the double hit? So if in a big tournament should a person call the TD to watch this hit on the 3 ball to make sure the player does not double hit the 3ball.
Andrew Manning said:You can intentionally foul as long as it's a legal stroke; i.e. the cue tip hits the CB once and only once, in a normal forward stroking motion.
If you intentionally hit the ball illegally, though, such as raking it with the side of the cue, pushing (rather than hitting), or intentionally double-hitting, then this is ruled as intentionally moving the balls by means other than a legal stroke, which is an instance of unsportsmanlike conduct. Unsportsmanlike conduct rules (usually loss of game) apply.
-Andrew