In league match tonight, a player from the opposing team broke, pocketed a stripe on the break, ...then shot a stripe in and made it...but the cue ball bumped the 8 in afterwards, resulting in a game loss.
The obvious was a 15-2 ...but I argued that he never actually claimed stripes,...since it was open after the break, and since he fouled when he knocked the eight ball in,,,they argued that he made the stripe then knocked the eight in, so he was stripes. My theory, is that knocking the eight in was a game ending foul...and none the less, a foul. If it was our guys turn back to the table, he would have had open table...so he should be able to choose his suit right? So why wouldn't he choose stripes for the 17-0 win?
What's the ruling?
The obvious was a 15-2 ...but I argued that he never actually claimed stripes,...since it was open after the break, and since he fouled when he knocked the eight ball in,,,they argued that he made the stripe then knocked the eight in, so he was stripes. My theory, is that knocking the eight in was a game ending foul...and none the less, a foul. If it was our guys turn back to the table, he would have had open table...so he should be able to choose his suit right? So why wouldn't he choose stripes for the 17-0 win?
What's the ruling?