im new here, i lvoe playing pool. mainly play with friends. we use the billiards congress of america rules. i believe in it it says if you have 1 ball left before the 8 ball you can use the 8 as a sort of nuetral ball to help pocket the last object ball. now my question is when you hit the 8 ball and the 8 ball hits your last ball and you dont pocket it is it a foul? and if so does it warrant a ball in hand.
i ask because i did that and my friend just grabbed the cue ball and said "foul" you only can use the 8 to pocket it, you missed therefore it's a foul. to me how can it be a foul when the rule allows for the ball in that scenario to be a nuetral ball used to combo your last ball in.
thanks, and also if you could link me to the rule if you find it so i can show it to him. i dont mind using other rules as long as it defines the rule well.
and we use to play by house rules but stopped because it was getting stupid. lol you guys know how that is.
i ask because i did that and my friend just grabbed the cue ball and said "foul" you only can use the 8 to pocket it, you missed therefore it's a foul. to me how can it be a foul when the rule allows for the ball in that scenario to be a nuetral ball used to combo your last ball in.
thanks, and also if you could link me to the rule if you find it so i can show it to him. i dont mind using other rules as long as it defines the rule well.
and we use to play by house rules but stopped because it was getting stupid. lol you guys know how that is.