How about what I asked? Con develops the the 1 outta 3 switcheroo for action. What are the numbers? What are the angles?
Obviously, no matter what the mark picks, the con gotta steer him wrong. This is no longer 66%.
You can try twisting that all you like. I still would like to know what happens when the dealer is out to beat the player.You didn’t even say a word about any of that shit until everyone told you how wrong you were.
Also, you’ve been answered several times.
If it’s a “con” then it’s cheating. Like the cardboard guys. That’s a scam.
If it’s a legit bet, with the scenario you initially posted, then there would be odds.
IE: if you bet $20 and picked the right card, you wouldn’t be paid $20. You’d be paid $5. So even when you win 66%, the “house” still wins overall.
There’s no other way this works.
You can try twisting that all you like. I still would like to know what happens when the dealer is out to beat the player.
No it's a simple game of influence; one of wits. Player picks, dealer who of course knows the correct choice, has to trick the player. If only the dealer is a telepath then of course it will be robbery. If both have enhanced perception then it can be a game. Since it's a thought experiment, say the player is unable to discern the winning pick and can only attempt to deduce the dealers intent.Lol. I literally just told you.
The dealer can’t beat the player in the scenario you posted unless he cheats or has odds on the money.
There’s no other ways to go about it. It’s 33% if you don’t switch, 66% if you do.
If the dealer is winning consistently, he’s cheating. Or the player is keeping his card the whole time and losing 66%.
What's not obvious is how the con can do that.Obviously, no matter what the mark picks, the con gotta steer him wrong. This is no longer 66%.
Fwiw … if you flipped a coin an infinite number of times, it Is essentially guaranteed that it would land on one side 1000x in a row an infinite number of times.…You might actually be able to flip a coin an infinite amount of times an maybe get it to land on one side 1,000 in a row….once in infinity. Maybe never…
Just some idle conversation here, voicing my confusion. I read about a computer generated coin flip years ago. I think they let it run billions of times or more. There was a high run of one side winning every flip of around 20-22 times. This was wildly improbable as the next highest run was under ten I believe.
Here is where I get confused. If the first twenty flips would have been all heads, the odds of the rest of the series being fifty-fifty remain the same. If there was a thousand flip run of all heads, the trial from there on out would still have fifty-fifty odds. It seems to me if the overall statistics are to remain fifty-fifty, then the tails side would have to do some catching up either with long runs of it's own or a series of shorter runs.
If the odds are fifty-fifty, after a billion flips shouldn't the results be within a very close percentage of fifty-fifty? The computers say that one side might be 10-15% ahead of the other. If so, I say the odds weren't fifty-fifty. Seems like if one side is well ahead the other side has to be favored over the following run if you can stay with it long enough.
This confusion is why I am much more inclined to wager than gamble. I hate to sound like Bert Kinister but my last wager was for a chicken dinner. A single backcut shot, a bad shot to bet against me on. To quote Bert, "Winner, Winner, chicken dinner!"
Hu
Most possibly! On the other hand, what if you agreed to twenty-five flips to begin with and the first twenty favored the person you were gambling with. Would any loser believe for a moment that they had been beaten by random chance 20 times in a row plus whatever way the last five flips went?
Fwiw … if you flipped a coin an infinite number of times, it Is essentially guaranteed that it would land on one side 1000x in a row an infinite number of times.
i.e. Infinity is really big .. 10^301 is still quite small when compared to infinity.
If Monte Hall decided to not offer the switch to everyone, but instead to only a percentage of the contestants, then under certain conditions, he could ensure that only 33% of the contestants win a car. He cannot do any better than that -meaning at least 1/3 of the contestants will win a car.What's not obvious is how the con can do that.
pj
chgo
sorry ... but your arrogance is only exceeded by your ignorance.None of the use of the term 'infinity' in this latest tangent to the discussion is mathematically coherent.
No it's a simple game of influence; one of wits. Player picks, dealer who of course knows the correct choice, has to trick the player. If only the dealer is a telepath then of course it will be robbery. If both have enhanced perception then it can be a game. Since it's a thought experiment, say the player is unable to discern the winning pick and can only attempt to deduce the dealers intent.
It is mathematically incoherent to talk about an infinity of trials. Prove me wrong.sorry ... but your arrogance is only exceeded by your ignorance.
It’s generally done within the concept of limits… More than happy to recommend a first year analysis text to assist….It is mathematically incoherent to talk about an infinity of trials. Prove me wrong.
Fwiw … if you flipped a coin an infinite number of times, it Is essentially guaranteed that it would land on one side 1000x in a row an infinite number of times.
i.e. Infinity is really big .. 10^301 is still quite small when compared to infinity.
No it's a simple game of influence; one of wits. Player picks, dealer who of course knows the correct choice, has to trick the player. If only the dealer is a telepath then of course it will be robbery. If both have enhanced perception then it can be a game. Since it's a thought experiment, say the player is unable to discern the winning pick and can only attempt to deduce the dealers intent.