Affect/Effect Your/You're

[Bigkat]

For both informational and educational purposes, many, of the words listed, in this thread, such as (their, they're, there, here, hear, to, too, two), the proper terms, for these, are called HOMONYMS & HOMOPHONES!!

 

[WoodyJ]

None is not a noun, therefore it can't be the subject of the sentence. The topic of the sentence is predicated on a previous sentence giving meaning to what the these represents and what these represents is the subject of the sentence.

Jaden

Btw, you proved my point in your example. Lol. If you were right, then none of these cues would be None of this cues in the case of the singular context...

None is not a noun.

Isn't the above sentence an example of none being used as the subject of a sentence?

 

[BC21]

None is not a noun, therefore it can't be the subject of the sentence. The topic of the sentence is predicated on a previous sentence giving meaning to what the these represents and what these represents is the subject of the sentence.

Jaden

Btw, you proved my point in your example. Lol. If you were right, then none of these cues would be None of this cues in the case of the singular context...

None of this stuff matters unless you're in the profession of writing. I mean, hell, slang and sloppy grammar are commonly accepted as normal in spoken language. Nevertheless, here's a good grammar lesson for those interested in the technicalities of proper grammar...

The words "this" and "these" are demonstrative pronouns, and they typically "demonstrate" specific "indirect objects". The pronoun tense (singular or plural - this or these) must match the tense of the object/noun it's demonstrating. Saying "this cues" is a mismatch - two different tenses.

Indirect objects are not the subjects of sentences. They are used in prepositional phrases, like "of these cues".

Prepositional phrases can be removed from sentences because they don't contain the subject or verb of the sentence.

So the statement, "None of these cues IS mine" is just as correct as "None of these cues ARE mine". Better examples to show the correct relationship between verb tense and subject tense would include:

"ONE of these IS mine."
"TWO of these ARE mine."

Or..

"NONE of these IS mine."
"ALL of these ARE mine."

In each of the above sentences, "these" is NOT the subject. That's why the verb tense does not have to match "these". The verb tense matches the subject tense. "ONE", "TWO", "NONE", and "ALL" are the subjects of the sentences.

 

[Shuddy]

None is not a noun.

Isn't the above sentence an example of none being used as the subject of a sentence?

Hahaha, yes, but only in the sense that it’s being used as an identifier. For example, “Exciting is not a noun.”

 

[Pin]

Effect and affect sometimes get me. I feel like I’ve looked up that sitch before and was still confused. Maybe I dreamed it.

A for action (to affect) is a nice way to remember it.

 

[Shuddy]

None of this stuff matters unless you're in the profession of writing. I mean, hell, slang and sloppy grammar are commonly accepted as normal in spoken language. Nevertheless, here's a good grammar lesson for those interested in the technicalities of proper grammar...

The words "this" and "these" are demonstrative pronouns, and they typically "demonstrate" specific "indirect objects". The pronoun tense (singular or plural - this or these) must match the tense of the object/noun it's demonstrating. Saying "this cues" is a mismatch - two different tenses.

Indirect objects are not the subjects of sentences. They are used in prepositional phrases, like "of these cues".

Prepositional phrases can be removed from sentences because they don't contain the subject or verb of the sentence.

So the statement, "None of these cues IS mine" is just as correct as "None of these cues ARE mine". Better examples to show the correct relationship between verb tense and subject tense would include:

"ONE of these IS mine."
"TWO of these ARE mine."

Or..

"NONE of these IS mine."
"ALL of these ARE mine."

In each of the above sentences, "these" is NOT the subject. That's why the verb tense does not have to match "these". The verb tense matches the subject tense. "ONE", "TWO", "NONE", and "ALL" are the subjects of the sentences.

Yes to everything. I think my post at the end of the previous page also gives some good examples of the above.

 

[chefjeff]

Verbs support the subject of a sentence. In the following sentences, NONE is the subject (the object of the sentence that the verb supports), and THESE is a demonstrative pronoun representing a specific group of items or things.

"None of these are good." .... Means not ANY/ALL of these things or items ARE good.

"None of these is good." ...Means not ONE of these things or items IS good.

Here's a better example to show the proper relationship between verb and subject:

"ONE of these cues IS worth a lot of money."

ONE is the subject.

Or I could say, "None (not one) of these cues is worth a lot of money."

Or I could say, "None (not all) of these cues are worth a lot of money."

The subject is not THESE, and it's not CUES. It's NONE.

So, can 'none' mean two entirely different things?

I thought it meant 'not one,' not 'not all.'

I'd say it this way: All of those cues are not worth a lot of money. But damn, "lot" is one. ah crap.

I'm selling all my cues and going into finding the one way of the universe.


Jeff Livingston