Hypothetical rules question - three fouls

At 14.1, an illegal break -- two point penalty -- is explicitly exempt from the three-foul sequence and the opponent can have you rebreak.

At the other games, I think both of those have to be included in the three-foul sequence, and I think the rules do but maybe are not clear.
 
Foul's a foul, why differentiate??
Well, at nine ball some people feel a totally whiffed break shot should be something other than ball in hand anywhere with a full rack. Some want a rebreak. I think the rule is fine as it is. It occurs rarely and tests the other player's knowledge. And maybe the ref. ;)
 
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I recall a recent loss in that situation when the fouler hit the one ball on the kick but then scratched for the third foul.

I think it was Albin who lost there.

As an aside, the OP mentioned an “illegal break”. I agree with your comments on a illegal break, but of course some people get confused with a break that fails to satisfy some rule like 3 balls past the headstring. Some commentators and others will call that an illegal break, but of course it’s not a foul. I prefer the term “non-conforming break”, which is less confusing.
 
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