In VNEA are any and all miscues a foul if a ref is present?
what constitues a miscue?
How do WSOP rules handle this?
PLEASE ONLY RESPOND IF YOU HAVE A CLUE
Dang do I need to list something for sale in this thread to get a response?
And yet, in that time, you easily could have googled the rules and read them and have your answer. Guess it's just easier to ask someone else do your work for you, and then chide them when they don't.![]()
Neil thanks for your response.Google can be a real waste of time
I posted the "for sale" comment in jest. I knew not everyone would be amused.
As for the miscue, the scenario is a C level player has ball in hand playing 9ball. As C level players are prone to do,he wants to combo the 9.1 is 4 inches off the rail so he places cueball next to rail and sets up shot. I am a more experienced player so the opponent asks if I will ref. Informal trnmnt and C player agrees.
C player jacks up and loads up w outside english. Miscues while he accidently pulls off a masse jumpshot. Hit is clean,misses the 9. I laughed and said no foul. Opponent is furious,"all miscues are fouls,when a ref is present.".
I have read the rules and really I am not sure?
Thus this pool related discussion on the MAIN FORUM.
Never said a thing about it not being pool related or shouldn't be in the main forum. So, I don't know why you even mentioned that. ??
General rules: http://www.vnea.com/general-definitions.aspx Read #1 and #9.
Now, go here: http://billiards.colostate.edu/threads/fouls.html#miscue From Dr. Dave's site, you can see that most miscues are resulting in the ferrule hitting the cb. Therefore, a miscue in VNEA would be ruled a foul according to GR #9. Even though it doesn't specifically state that all miscues are fouls. The fact that the cb jumped is immaterial due to the fact that it wasn't intentional.
I'm not sure I agree with your conclusions and they are contrary to Dr. Dave and Bob's analysis. Now, they are working with the WPA rules, which expressly state that "although some miscues involve contact with of the cue stick with the ball, unless such contract is clearly visible, it is assumed not to have occurred." So they give a number of examples where there in fact WAS contact with the shaft or ferule but say it should not be called a foul because the contract was not "clearly visible" except in slow mo.
What is not clear, from the VNEA rules you cite, is whether the VNEA rules take the same position as the WPA regarding the need for to contact to be "clearly visible".
My own view is that they should adopt the same position - you can't call a foul because "usually" a miscue involves a shaft hit.