At the start of the paragraph you state that the game is 1 To 1 when Joe takes the intention foul and spots 1 ball. At that point I assume he was out of pocketed balls, where did the other two balls he claimed were his come from ???
There is also an unwritten rule of pool gambling that says, When you have the best of a game, avoid arguing with your opponent because you risk losing your customer, when losing your customer would be more costly than losing your argument.
Very good point.
Absolutely, but I'm not sure the OP had the best of the game.. I'm not sure he meant one game apiece and they're at the beginning of game three, or the score is one ball apiece in the third game. He said, 'It's early in game three, (game score 1 to 1)'...
one game each, start of the third game? What was the ball score?
Moose, let us know, brother...
Game score was 1 to 1. Ball score was 0 to 0 prior to the inning in which he made balls (as stated I'm pretty sure he did make three and spotted one). The reason that I didn't see him put the two on the table (I'm assuming that he did at this point) was because I was sitting near the foot of the table where his body was blocking my view when he was spotting the ball. Regarding having the best of it, I feel like I certainly did have the best of it, but I wasn't a HUGE favorite. This guy and I have a history and I've decided that it wasn't worth playing him at least a couple times before, but over time I've always decided to give him another chance hoping that me calling him out on his antics in the past will lead to better behavior. Since he pulled the same BS with the tantrum, it is proof that I was giving too much credit. Thanks again for all of the opinions and personal experiences that everyone has shared. Happy Halloween everyone! :smile:
That's assuming that he DID place the other balls on the table, or whether they were there already... did he make 'em? That's the real issue and why I think it's a move.