You seem to be saying that a player can't call a foul on himself. I don't believe this is ever true. And I don't believe it's ever the wrong thing to do.
pj
chgo
No, I just don't think one player can decide whether a ball is frozen or not, and many times the situation can't be determined with certainty unless someone really scrutinizes it. Calling fouls on yourself is a different issue, IMO, because you are the only one at the table, and perhaps the only one who could see the situation and know with certainty if there was a foul. In those cases I agree that it is absolutely the right thing to do. Even in a case where the seated player calls a foul, the shooter at the table still has a chance to plead his case, however. I saw a match b/w Mike Davis and SVB where Mike called foul on two occasions, and both times Shane said "no foul" - a discussion ensued and each time Shane stayed at the table.
Unlike a foul, however, a frozen ball situation is a determination that needs to be made before the shot, at a time when both players can approach the table, and I think there should be a consensus between players on that. If a ball is iffy, and I perceive an advantage to myself one way or the other, the only fair thing to do is get my opponent or a referee involved. Perhaps the frozen ball situation will persist after my shot, which means my opponent will potentially have to deal with it, and it is in everyone's best interest to scrutinize it and come to an agreement about it's status. That being said, if the aforementioned process does not occur (the ball is not called frozen), then I believe that the ball is not frozen regardless of how any one player feels about it, and at that point it becomes less about what a player should do than what the rules state the player can do. If the seated player is concerned about it, he
should ask whether the ball is frozen.
I liken it to the 3 foul rule. If you commit 3 fouls in a row, but I neglected to warn you on 2, the rules say that the 3-foul rule does not apply. Even though there were 3 consecutive fouls, without that consensus after the 2nd foul, it is not a loss of game. I have have called 3 fouls on myself before, without the warning at 2, but I haven't seen anyone else do it, and I don't feel a player is obligated to do it if they weren't warned on 2. The rules clearly state that it is the other player's responsibility to give the warning after the 2nd foul, so I really don't see an ethical issue there.
Edit: I haven't consulted all the rule books, but the text in the APA rule book basically sums it up: "In order for the "frozen ball" rule to be in effect, the opponent must declare the ball frozen and the player should verify. Once it is agreed the ball is frozen..." These rules state that a consensus is required, and that's all I am saying. Without that, the ball is, for all practical purposes, not frozen IMO.
Aaron