Is it common practice to go for a 3 foul with a safe on the 1 after your opponent miscues on the break and touches no balls in 9ball?
This happened to me the other day and left me... let's say a little surprised. I understand it is most likely legal, just wanted to know if it is an usual occurrence and your opinion on this.
This happened to me the other day and left me... let's say a little surprised. I understand it is most likely legal, just wanted to know if it is an usual occurrence and your opinion on this.