Affect/Effect Your/You're
- Thread starter Biloxi Boy
- Start date
Morons who talk but don’t understand that words actually have meanings…
Actually, both could be correct.
BBB maintains the plural of "this" is "these". That is correct.
Chef Jeff maintains that the verb should have been the singular "is", not the plural "are". He could be correct, but it depends upon the context. In this case, he is correct also, but mostly because of the point in the next-to-last paragraph of this way-too-long response.
Normally, we consider the preposition ("of") and realize that the verb should reflect the noun before the preposition, not after. The issue here is that "none" is among the unique nouns that can be considered singular or plural.
If, as used in the sentence, "none" refers to each item (or an item), then it is singular: "None of them is ready." (For example, I'm building four cue sticks for four individuals and none of them is ready.)
If as used in the sentence "none" refers to all items, then it is plural: "None of them are ready." (For example, I'm building you four cue sticks and none of them are ready.)
In this instance, bes is referring to all of the examples of homophones that had been discussed previously, hence making "none" plural in this instance and requiring a plural verb.
BUT, it's the English language, and it's evolving. In the last 20 years, some rules are becoming more lax. My observation is that it's becoming more acceptable to use what "sounds right", and that is being accepted as correct. "None of us is going to the tournament." That's correct because not one of us in the group is going. "None of us are going to the tournament." This is correct also, as we are really talking about the plural "us". Plus, it just sounds better.
Disclaimer: I'm not an English teacher or even close, nor were my parents teachers of any kind. I was able to make money the first couple of years in college tutoring other students in English and Math, but that in and of itself does not make me an expert in anything...
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I strive to be correct and I know the difference. But I also type at a level of intuitiveness. I know what I want to say and my thumbs just move automatically. Sometimes I get burned by autocorrect. Sometimes my thumbs just type out the wrong thing. So I think it’s one thing if you don’t know grammar and another if a typo just happens to slip through on autopilot. It’s one of those things where a wise man won’t waste his time nitpicking but trolls tend to gravitate to these things because it’s one more thing they can use to feed their sophomoric egos in an argument.
Because the expression was "I could not care less" but people got lazy in how they say it.
My pet peeves is using it's as a possessive, when it is actually a contraction of it is. It is particularly annoying when I use it correctly and autocorrect inserts an apostrophe, which it seems to do universally. It is as if autocorrect thinks there is no such word as its, just it's.
As I like to say, Siri’s grammar sucks!
That right there is some good English'n!Actually, both could be correct.
BBB maintains the plural of "this" is "these". That is correct.
Chef Jeff maintains that the verb should have been the singular "is", not the plural "are". He could be correct, but it depends upon the context. In this case, he is correct also, but mostly because of the point in the next-to-last paragraph of this way-too-long response.
Normally, we consider the preposition ("of") and realize that the verb should reflect the noun before the preposition, not after. The issue here is that "none" is among the unique nouns that can be considered singular or plural.
If, as used in the sentence, "none" refers to each item (or a item), then it is singular: "None of them is ready." (For example, I'm building four cue sticks for four individuals and none of them is ready.)
If as used in the sentence "none" refers to all items, then it is singular: "None of them are ready." (For example, I'm building you four cue sticks and none of them are ready.)
In this instance, bes is referring to all of the examples of homophones that had been discussed previously, hence making "none" plural in this instance and requiring a plural verb.
BUT, it's the English language, and it's evolving. In the last 20 years, some rules are becoming more lax. My observation is that it's becoming more acceptable to use what "sounds right", and that is being accepted as correct. "None of us is going to the tournament." That's correct because not one of us in the group is going. "None of us are going to the tournament." This is correct also, as we are really talking about the plural "us". Plus, it just sounds better.
Disclaimer: I'm not an English teacher or even close, nor were my parents teachers of any kind. I was able to make money the first couple of years in college tutoring other students in English and Math, but that in and of itself does not make me an expert in anything...
boogieman
It don't mean a thing if it ain't got that ping.
Yep.
Along with to, too, and two, and there, their, and they’re.
Don‘t get me started on “I could care less“ or “irregardless”…
Or inflammable. Should mean it's NOT flammable.
Inflammable is actually correct though and is synonymous with flammable. It just doesn’t follow normal English convention…
I think you're saying I should return my favorite pajamas
"Inflammable" was done away with due to the confusion.
Yeah, my mother was an English teacher, so I knew that at a very young age. Always had fun being abnormal and correct at the same time.
The word “these” or “them” make “none” plural, as a matter of style. None of this is important.
Wherez is COCO when we need um?Actually, both could be correct.
BBB maintains the plural of "this" is "these". That is correct.
Chef Jeff maintains that the verb should have been the singular "is", not the plural "are". He could be correct, but it depends upon the context. In this case, he is correct also, but mostly because of the point in the next-to-last paragraph of this way-too-long response.
Normally, we consider the preposition ("of") and realize that the verb should reflect the noun before the preposition, not after. The issue here is that "none" is among the unique nouns that can be considered singular or plural.
If, as used in the sentence, "none" refers to each item (or a item), then it is singular: "None of them is ready." (For example, I'm building four cue sticks for four individuals and none of them is ready.)
If as used in the sentence "none" refers to all items, then it is singular: "None of them are ready." (For example, I'm building you four cue sticks and none of them are ready.)
In this instance, bes is referring to all of the examples of homophones that had been discussed previously, hence making "none" plural in this instance and requiring a plural verb.
BUT, it's the English language, and it's evolving. In the last 20 years, some rules are becoming more lax. My observation is that it's becoming more acceptable to use what "sounds right", and that is being accepted as correct. "None of us is going to the tournament." That's correct because not one of us in the group is going. "None of us are going to the tournament." This is correct also, as we are really talking about the plural "us". Plus, it just sounds better.
Disclaimer: I'm not an English teacher or even close, nor were my parents teachers of any kind. I was able to make money the first couple of years in college tutoring other students in English and Math, but that in and of itself does not make me an expert in anything...
Lol, no, you lostUh, I hate to say this but it should be "...none of these IS that big of a deal..."
Say 'hi' to your Mom.
Jeff Livingston
