justinb386
Banned
This past weekend I played in a $40 entry 10-ball tournament at a local bar which included a Calcutta. They had 2 blind bids and my buddy and I bought the second bid and chose one of the favorites. The player bought half of himself from us and ended up winning the tournament. So he gets the first place money for winning and half of first place in the Calcutta and my buddy and I split the other half. Monday I see a post by him on Face Book bashing us for not giving him a percentage of our share in the Calcutta that "HE" won for us. Am I missing something here? I thought the concept of the Calcutta, requiring us to allow him to buy half of himself, insures that he gets his fair share. If he wanted more than half, he could have bid and bought himself and had the whole thing. If we had all of him and got all the 1st place Calcutta money, of course we should give him a percentage but with him getting half, I don't agree with his way of thinking. Please tell me if I am wrong.
Yeah, he has a really messed up way of thinking, if he thinks he deserves more then 50% of the calcutta money. He did not buy himself in the calcutta. He purchased half of himself back, so he got his fair share of his half of the calcutta money back, after winning the tournament. You are also correct about the other thing. If you would have bought him in the calcutta, and he did not buy half of himself back, then you would be entitled to 100% of the calcutta money. In that case, some calcutta buyers are really nice, and will give the winner maybe 20% of that money (like maybe $20 from a $100, or $50 from $200), if they are feeling nice and generous, but they are not morally entitled to do that. Why should they be? The player did not put any money into the calcutta, so why should he get any money out of it? Most buyers have been nice and generous with me in the past though, after I won, and did not get any of myself in the calcutta. They would usually give me a small % of it.