I guess the rule or desision to not let the Phillipinos play each other in the early rounds payed off for someone. Looks like there could be 2 in the US Open finals. So I am obviously biased but still don't get why it happened and seems like it worked out the way the powers wanted it to.
I do not want to take anything away from the players as they have to play very well to get to this point but would there have been a different outcome if that rule was not there? Thats my question.
I do not want to take anything away from the players as they have to play very well to get to this point but would there have been a different outcome if that rule was not there? Thats my question.