Etiquette question

miramachine

AzB Silver Member
Silver Member
I had a scenario on this past weekend where I had my opponent lose it at me for something and I just wanted to get opinions so I don't make the same mistake.

Playing 9 ball and my opponent shoots the 7 ball, as he was bringing his arm off the table (and the cue ball still moving) he hits the 8 ball about a foot which runs into the 9 ball as well. This wasn't a foul as per tournament rules which is fine. It was then my decision to leave the balls where they are or try to put them back where they were. The original positions of the balls were easier than after he hit them with his arm so I just said leave them where they are (which is the harder shot). He then misses the 8 ball and proceeds to be VERY upset at me calling me a dirty player among other things and he couldn't believe how I could not just put the balls back for him which was a much easier run out.

I didn't think twice about leaving the harder shot for him and I would expect him to do the same to me. Am I dead wrong for doing this?
 
I had a scenario on this past weekend where I had my opponent lose it at me for something and I just wanted to get opinions so I don't make the same mistake.

Playing 9 ball and my opponent shoots the 7 ball, as he was bringing his arm off the table (and the cue ball still moving) he hits the 8 ball about a foot which runs into the 9 ball as well. This wasn't a foul as per tournament rules which is fine. It was then my decision to leave the balls where they are or try to put them back where they were. The original positions of the balls were easier than after he hit them with his arm so I just said leave them where they are (which is the harder shot). He then misses the 8 ball and proceeds to be VERY upset at me calling me a dirty player among other things and he couldn't believe how I could not just put the balls back for him which was a much easier run out.

I didn't think twice about leaving the harder shot for him and I would expect him to do the same to me. Am I dead wrong for doing this?

Same scenario happens all the time playing 1pocket -- it's his problem not yours.

Lou Figueroa
 
Some people are ASSHATS. Ignore em, do not lower yourself to their level.

Maybe you should have asked, War Veteran? Maybe the VA can't give you help with PTSD.
Um, your custom title. I believe you mean <heroes>. The apostrophe < s > is possessive. Pointed it out because it'll be there till you change it.
 
I had a scenario on this past weekend where I had my opponent lose it at me for something and I just wanted to get opinions so I don't make the same mistake.

Playing 9 ball and my opponent shoots the 7 ball, as he was bringing his arm off the table (and the cue ball still moving) he hits the 8 ball about a foot which runs into the 9 ball as well. This wasn't a foul as per tournament rules which is fine. It was then my decision to leave the balls where they are or try to put them back where they were. The original positions of the balls were easier than after he hit them with his arm so I just said leave them where they are (which is the harder shot). He then misses the 8 ball and proceeds to be VERY upset at me calling me a dirty player among other things and he couldn't believe how I could not just put the balls back for him which was a much easier run out.

I didn't think twice about leaving the harder shot for him and I would expect him to do the same to me. Am I dead wrong for doing this?
Like everyone else has said, you did nothing wrong. Your opponent is just douche. Not gonna lie, though, it would take everything in my being to not "accidentally" knock the balls all over the place on my next turn at the table so I could ask them if they wanted to move them back or leave them there. If they said to leave them there, I might just "accidentally" knock them all over again just so I could ask them one more time. Let's see how many times we can do it before the guy blows a fuse.

I'm getting too old for the emotional BS that some people bring to the table of life.
 
Perhaps the bigger question is why is that not a foul???

I appreciate its a US local-rules thing, but it just seems very odd, in the UK (and I believe in mainland Europe too, happy to be corrected), I've never seen or heard of a tournament where this wouldn't be considered a foul, potentially even loss of rack.
 
Perhaps the bigger question is why is that not a foul???

I appreciate its a US local-rules thing, but it just seems very odd, in the UK (and I believe in mainland Europe too, happy to be corrected), I've never seen or heard of a tournament where this wouldn't be considered a foul, potentially even loss of rack.
Yep.

Generally speaking, even when playing cue ball fouls only, if a disturbed ball impedes the path of the cue ball or involves multiple balls, it's a foul.
 
Perhaps the bigger question is why is that not a foul???

I appreciate its a US local-rules thing, but it just seems very odd, in the UK (and I believe in mainland Europe too, happy to be corrected), I've never seen or heard of a tournament where this wouldn't be considered a foul, potentially even loss of rack.

Yeah thats a whole other thing as I couldn't believe it wasn't a foul either where 2 balls were moving. It was texas express rules and pretty sure thats a foul. But the tournament director seemed confident that it wasn't a foul so I picked my battles I guess lol
 
Yeah thats a whole other thing as I couldn't believe it wasn't a foul either where 2 balls were moving. It was texas express rules and pretty sure thats a foul. But the tournament director seemed confident that it wasn't a foul so I picked my battles I guess lol
I suppose you could ask the TD if you could see a copy of the written rules but he's probably just operating by myth, legend, and what Big Jimmy told him the rules are. If he's going by the BCAPL/CSI rules, or thinks he is, the shot was a ball-in-hand foul.

I think that no one uses the actual "Texas Express" rules -- that's just a way to say ball in hand for any foul. The Texas Express organization ended about 25 years ago and the rules have changed some since then.
 
I had a scenario on this past weekend where I had my opponent lose it at me for something and I just wanted to get opinions so I don't make the same mistake.

Playing 9 ball and my opponent shoots the 7 ball, as he was bringing his arm off the table (and the cue ball still moving) he hits the 8 ball about a foot which runs into the 9 ball as well. This wasn't a foul as per tournament rules which is fine. It was then my decision to leave the balls where they are or try to put them back where they were. The original positions of the balls were easier than after he hit them with his arm so I just said leave them where they are (which is the harder shot). He then misses the 8 ball and proceeds to be VERY upset at me calling me a dirty player among other things and he couldn't believe how I could not just put the balls back for him which was a much easier run out.

I didn't think twice about leaving the harder shot for him and I would expect him to do the same to me. Am I dead wrong for doing this?
the guy is a nit. i'd have done the exact same thing. you did nothing wrong.
 
So they move the ball and they blame you for missing? You can't make this :poop: up. I wouldn't even bother playing them again.
That could have been better stated.

He moved the balls and blamed you for where they went?

I'd say play him again if it happens, but if he starts in again with that dumb shit, let him know it was only coz of your sweet disposition you didn't say anything about it at the time...and does he really think you put the balls there or invented the rules?
 
Um, your custom title. I believe you mean <heroes>. The apostrophe < s > is possessive. Pointed it out because it'll be there till you change it.
LOL
Screenshot_20241121-064558.jpg
 
I had a scenario on this past weekend where I had my opponent lose it at me for something and I just wanted to get opinions so I don't make the same mistake.

Playing 9 ball and my opponent shoots the 7 ball, as he was bringing his arm off the table (and the cue ball still moving) he hits the 8 ball about a foot which runs into the 9 ball as well. This wasn't a foul as per tournament rules which is fine. It was then my decision to leave the balls where they are or try to put them back where they were. The original positions of the balls were easier than after he hit them with his arm so I just said leave them where they are (which is the harder shot). He then misses the 8 ball and proceeds to be VERY upset at me calling me a dirty player among other things and he couldn't believe how I could not just put the balls back for him which was a much easier run out.

I didn't think twice about leaving the harder shot for him and I would expect him to do the same to me. Am I dead wrong for doing this?
One....if a ball hits another ball always has to be a foul cuz you cannot easily replace them.

Two...it is your choice to put them back or not. I've seen guys "put them back" where there was no longer a shot. Not much you can do about it.

This guy hopefully learned something. Probably not.
 
I had a scenario on this past weekend where I had my opponent lose it at me for something and I just wanted to get opinions so I don't make the same mistake.

Playing 9 ball and my opponent shoots the 7 ball, as he was bringing his arm off the table (and the cue ball still moving) he hits the 8 ball about a foot which runs into the 9 ball as well. This wasn't a foul as per tournament rules which is fine. It was then my decision to leave the balls where they are or try to put them back where they were. The original positions of the balls were easier than after he hit them with his arm so I just said leave them where they are (which is the harder shot). He then misses the 8 ball and proceeds to be VERY upset at me calling me a dirty player among other things and he couldn't believe how I could not just put the balls back for him which was a much easier run out.

I didn't think twice about leaving the harder shot for him and I would expect him to do the same to me. Am I dead wrong for doing this?
#1 you did nothing wrong, if he is unhappy with the position of the balls I would suggest he doesn't move them next time.

#2 I believe the TD was in the wrong, cue ball only fouls usually pertain to one ball being accidentally moved, when its 2 or more balls that were moved its generally a foul even if it is cue ball fouls only.
 
I had a scenario on this past weekend where I had my opponent lose it at me for something and I just wanted to get opinions so I don't make the same mistake.

Playing 9 ball and my opponent shoots the 7 ball, as he was bringing his arm off the table (and the cue ball still moving) he hits the 8 ball about a foot which runs into the 9 ball as well. This wasn't a foul as per tournament rules which is fine. It was then my decision to leave the balls where they are or try to put them back where they were. The original positions of the balls were easier than after he hit them with his arm so I just said leave them where they are (which is the harder shot). He then misses the 8 ball and proceeds to be VERY upset at me calling me a dirty player among other things and he couldn't believe how I could not just put the balls back for him which was a much easier run out.

I didn't think twice about leaving the harder shot for him and I would expect him to do the same to me. Am I dead wrong for doing this?

You were 100% right. I've never heard of a tourney that doesn't call that a foul since the cueball was in play.

You could have told him that you figured he wanted them there since he was the one who moved them.
 
Carelessness: The inevitable result of abandoning a long tradition (‘all fouls’). The pros can’t afford to get so sloppy (can’t call an OB foul on myself either under the now common local tournament rules). Forcing uninformed idiots to comply with the rules only invites ill feelings & arguments. Life is too short.
 
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