Tank69 stated "I think the important thing here is if you foul and nobody saw it but you, is it still a foul? I've fouled before, nobody saw it, but I called it. Not that I was looking to see if someone saw it, I go by the reaction of my opponent when I tell him I fouled. Just because he didn't see it, or a referee didn't see it, doesn't mean it didn't happen. You can do whatever you want to do in this situation, it's your call. I choose to take the higher road, because as big of an a$$hole as I can sometimes be, nobody can say I'm dishonest or a cheat. "
Tank, welcome to the conversation. In previous posts it was determined, by rule, that if a foul is not called, then it never happened. It doesn't matter whether you opponent could not see it.
The circumstances of striking another ball , after a foul, modified the events so that there litterally was no foul....it never happened.
Since the rules allow you to self call to qualify the act as a foul, some may choose this option.
The rules also allow for you to continue shooting after the fact and litterally modify the events so that no foul occured.
It is in this theme that we have been debating how moral views should be applied.
Both events are well within the rules. Why should one carry more weight than the other unless you impose some arbitrary moral viewpoint?