Pool Trivia

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cuetechasaurus

AzB Silver Member
Silver Member
Here's one I thought of-

Let's say there is a big tournament, BCA standardized rules of play. How would it be possible for two people to play a normal-length race, say a race to 7, and one player wins the match without ever having to step to the table, not even to rack the balls. The match was not forfeited, no games were conceded either. No disqualification or anything like that. The entire match was played by the loser.

Name the game, format, and any other rules that would apply to make that possible, and explain how the winner never had to step to the table, not even once. No "bar" rules or anything like that.

Whoever guesses this one, you have to create the next trivia question. Okay, you don't have to, but it would be cool of someone keeps the thread going for a little while. :cool:
 
If it's BCA rules eight ball with loser racks/breaks, eight ball down and scratch off the break, don't you have to spot the eight ball, and "winning player" has then has ball in hand behind the line. You can't win or lose by pocketing the eight ball off the break.

I don't see how this is possible with a "race to seven" meaning this is not a straight pool match.
 
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Couldn't be done. Both players would have to break during the match. There is no way this could have been done in a legal game, without any DQs or technicalities. The only way it could happen is if the other player forfeited the break in every match, and the other player lost every rack with an 8-ball foul, and it was rack your own.
 
Loser breaks/rack your own

It is pretty simple, the format is Loser breaks and rack your own. The loser of the match, wins the flip, and racks. During the course of the game, he either makes the 8 ball out of turn, or scratches and makes the 8 ball (not on the break) to satisfy BCA rules for loss of game. He does one of the 2 scenarios 7 straight games and the winner just has to get up and shake his hand after the match is over and never has to leave his seat.
 
Stew_Pidaso said:
It is pretty simple, the format is Loser breaks and rack your own. The loser of the match, wins the flip, and racks. During the course of the game, he either makes the 8 ball out of turn, or scratches and makes the 8 ball (not on the break) to satisfy BCA rules for loss of game. He does one of the 2 scenarios 7 straight games and the winner just has to get up and shake his hand after the match is over and never has to leave his seat.
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Those are technicalities. General rules for BCA play are not rack your own, and they aren't loser breaks.

Lame question, lame answer.
 
:rolleyes:
Stew_Pidaso said:
It is pretty simple, the format is Loser breaks and rack your own. The loser of the match, wins the flip, and racks. During the course of the game, he either makes the 8 ball out of turn, or scratches and makes the 8 ball (not on the break) to satisfy BCA rules for loss of game. He does one of the 2 scenarios 7 straight games and the winner just has to get up and shake his hand after the match is over and never has to leave his seat.
Click to expand...

4.20 LOSS OF GAME
A player loses the game by committing any of the following infractions:

1. Fouls when pocketing the 8-ball (exception: see 8-Ball Pocketed On The
Break).
2. Pockets the 8-ball on the same stroke as the last of his group of balls.
3. Jumps the 8-ball off the table at any time.
4. Pockets the 8-ball in a pocket other than the one designated.
5. Pockets the 8-ball when it is not the legal object ball.

http://www.bca-pool.com/play/tournaments/rules/rls_8bl.shtml

I guess it is possible for this to be the case where one of these could occur, with the "winner" never leaving his seat.

This is becoming too much work.
 
cuetechasaurus said:
Here's one I thought of-

Let's say there is a big tournament, BCA standardized rules of play. How would it be possible for two people to play a normal-length race, say a race to 7, and one player wins the match without ever having to step to the table, not even to rack the balls. The match was not forfeited, no games were conceded either. No disqualification or anything like that. The entire match was played by the loser.

Name the game, format, and any other rules that would apply to make that possible, and explain how the winner never had to step to the table, not even once. No "bar" rules or anything like that.

Whoever guesses this one, you have to create the next trivia question. Okay, you don't have to, but it would be cool of someone keeps the thread going for a little while. :cool:
Click to expand...

I'm sure Efren has done this a time or two.....we should ask him!
 
Maybe lame question, not lame answer

Shawn Armstrong said:
Those are technicalities. General rules for BCA play are not rack your own, and they aren't loser breaks.

Lame question, lame answer.
Click to expand...

You might think of it as a lame question, but the answer is not a lame answer. He did not say it was the BCA national tournament in Vegas. He just stated that the GAME was played using BCA rules. He also asked to state the game and format. The game is 8 ball with loser breaks as the format. I did not make up the question, I just came up with the answer to satisfy his requirements and that doesn't mean that I agree that it is a good format either. All he was apparently trying to do was have a little fun and stimulate some thought and probably wasn't looking to be ridiculed nor was I.
 
cuetechasaurus said:
Here's one I thought of-

Let's say there is a big tournament, BCA standardized rules of play. How would it be possible for two people to play a normal-length race, say a race to 7, and one player wins the match without ever having to step to the table, not even to rack the balls. The match was not forfeited, no games were conceded either. No disqualification or anything like that. The entire match was played by the loser.

Name the game, format, and any other rules that would apply to make that possible, and explain how the winner never had to step to the table, not even once. No "bar" rules or anything like that.

Whoever guesses this one, you have to create the next trivia question. Okay, you don't have to, but it would be cool of someone keeps the thread going for a little while. :cool:
Click to expand...

Well done!....SPF=randyg
 
That is a tough one

The only thought I have so far is the bases are loaded and the batter hits the ball and the ball hits the guy on third while in fair play, the ball then caroms off of him and hits the guy going from second to third and miracously caroms off of him to hit the guy going from first to second. However, the flaw would be that the ball becomes dead after it hits the first runner I believe, so I dont think this works. Other than that, I am stumped. The other thought would be all base runners failing to touch a base during a hit, but a fielder would eventually have to pick up the ball to make the appeal.
 
Jude Rosenstock said:
ok, in baseball, how can you get three outs on one play without a single fielder touching the ball?
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Batter hits a ball to the gap in the outfield with bases loaded. He misses the first base bag in the run.
Two runners on base run past a front baserunner.
???
They all cross the homeplate but 3 are out.
 
jon21588 said:
Bases loaded, home run is hit, three of the four runners miss a base as they run.
Click to expand...


Nope - since in order to record the outs, a fielder would actually have to take the baseball prior to the next pitch and step on each bag.
 
Stew_Pidaso said:
The only thought I have so far is the bases are loaded and the batter hits the ball and the ball hits the guy on third while in fair play, the ball then caroms off of him and hits the guy going from second to third and miracously caroms off of him to hit the guy going from first to second. However, the flaw would be that the ball becomes dead after it hits the first runner I believe, so I dont think this works. Other than that, I am stumped. The other thought would be all base runners failing to touch a base during a hit, but a fielder would eventually have to pick up the ball to make the appeal.
Click to expand...


Okay, you have to stay within the confines of what is possible.
 
Stew_Pidaso said:
The only thought I have so far is the bases are loaded and the batter hits the ball and the ball hits the guy on third while in fair play, the ball then caroms off of him and hits the guy going from second to third and miracously caroms off of him to hit the guy going from first to second. However, the flaw would be that the ball becomes dead after it hits the first runner I believe, so I dont think this works. Other than that, I am stumped. The other thought would be all base runners failing to touch a base during a hit, but a fielder would eventually have to pick up the ball to make the appeal.
Click to expand...

Thats the Magic Baseball theory....like Oswalds magic bullett.

Southpaw
 
Stew_Pidaso said:
The only thought I have so far is the bases are loaded and the batter hits the ball and the ball hits the guy on third while in fair play, the ball then caroms off of him and hits the guy going from second to third and miracously caroms off of him to hit the guy going from first to second. However, the flaw would be that the ball becomes dead after it hits the first runner I believe, so I dont think this works. Other than that, I am stumped. The other thought would be all base runners failing to touch a base during a hit, but a fielder would eventually have to pick up the ball to make the appeal.
Click to expand...
I believe when a ball hits a runner, he is out and it's dead ball after that.
 
jon21588 said:
Bases loaded, home run is hit, three of the four runners miss a base as they run.
Click to expand...

This could work as he stated touching the ball, not a ball, which would be needed to make the appeal for the missed base. You posted this as I was typing my post describing a similar situation.
 
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