overspin thoery
I was at first a tad skeptical after reading the ?myth of top spin? ? so I did a little experiment.
I froze the cue and the OB on the head rail at the center dot and kept the cue parallel to the table while executing a firm stroke through the two frozen balls. Hitting this shot, I cannot make the cue outrace the OB. Hence the claims of over-spin with parallel top English seems confirmed.
If I jack up on the cue ball and stroke through with top English (and a small amount of left or right to keep from colliding with the OB), the cue ball will outrace the OB to the end rail consistently. I believe this may indicate an ?over-spin? condition that can only be achieved by using a high downward angle on the cue.
Does the experiment relate to the ?over-spin? myth/fact or are there other factors I am not considering?
I was at first a tad skeptical after reading the ?myth of top spin? ? so I did a little experiment.
I froze the cue and the OB on the head rail at the center dot and kept the cue parallel to the table while executing a firm stroke through the two frozen balls. Hitting this shot, I cannot make the cue outrace the OB. Hence the claims of over-spin with parallel top English seems confirmed.
If I jack up on the cue ball and stroke through with top English (and a small amount of left or right to keep from colliding with the OB), the cue ball will outrace the OB to the end rail consistently. I believe this may indicate an ?over-spin? condition that can only be achieved by using a high downward angle on the cue.
Does the experiment relate to the ?over-spin? myth/fact or are there other factors I am not considering?