Recently was in a money match and I had to bridge over a ball and on my back stroke I bumped a couple object balls, the cue ball was still in motion and rolled into or through the path of those balls. The opponent said its a foul. Now in my heart I felt, yaa it should probably be a foul but under the rules we were playing I believed it not to be a foul. That rule being "cue ball fouls only" only. So we questioned the other one pocket players and they said no foul. Which really led to drama. Then we called up two pro's and they said for sure a foul. Which ended up being the final decision.
What I really thought we should of done is have the opponent put the balls back where he thought they should be but this was unacceptable to him.
Now I have recently decided to download the "official" rules to my phone
and after looking over the foul section I concluded that I was right all along. http://www.onepocket.org/one_pocket_pool_rules.htm
I have concluded that this is some "unwritten" rule between players.
This IMO is a shady rule that needs to be refined officially because there will be the day that the cue ball rolls towards the balls you bumped and may be 1/16th of an inch from missing them and how the hell do you decide if it would of hit or not.
Of course if were playing "all ball fouls" its 100% a foul.
For those of you that agree or disagree, please copy and paste the rule that decides this so that in the future I can reference it.
What I really thought we should of done is have the opponent put the balls back where he thought they should be but this was unacceptable to him.
Now I have recently decided to download the "official" rules to my phone
and after looking over the foul section I concluded that I was right all along. http://www.onepocket.org/one_pocket_pool_rules.htm
I have concluded that this is some "unwritten" rule between players.
This IMO is a shady rule that needs to be refined officially because there will be the day that the cue ball rolls towards the balls you bumped and may be 1/16th of an inch from missing them and how the hell do you decide if it would of hit or not.
Of course if were playing "all ball fouls" its 100% a foul.
For those of you that agree or disagree, please copy and paste the rule that decides this so that in the future I can reference it.