Here's the situation: The two top guns for the teams in the finals of the league championship are playing in a crucial match (the team score is tied 6-6 in a race to nine matches). The match is being presided over by a referee and is thus all ball fouls.
Player A touched an object ball while shooting, and Player B called 'foul', but the referee didn't see the foul and thus ruled that Player A could continue shooting. Player A did indeed touch the ball (but was never asked by the referee), and a number of spectators saw that the ball was touched. The match was being videotaped but was not consulted. It must be added, however, that the tape was consulted later in the match when Player B asserted that Player A did not call a cross-side bank on the eight ball and the referee did not see or hear the call (the review showed that Player A did indeed call the pocket by pointing to it--the new rules requiring verbal designation were not yet in use in the league.).
The incident and the discussion(s!) afterwards ensued raised a number of questions that I submit to my highly esteemed fellow forum members for consideration.
1. Can a player make a call in a match presided over by a referee? If so, what is the best response by the referee if there is a dispute among the players on the issue?
2. Player A said afterwards (and I believe him) that he knew he had touched the ball and would have said so if asked, but that he wasn't going to call it on himself. Should he have?
3. In the second instance, where it was claimed that Player A hadn't called a pocket, should the tape have been used to verify it, considering that it hadn't been used earlier? If not, how should the situation have been resolved?
If Jay and the many other highly experienced folks can weigh in on this it would be greatly appreciated, but I look forward to hearing all viewpoints on the issue. Many thanks!!
Player A touched an object ball while shooting, and Player B called 'foul', but the referee didn't see the foul and thus ruled that Player A could continue shooting. Player A did indeed touch the ball (but was never asked by the referee), and a number of spectators saw that the ball was touched. The match was being videotaped but was not consulted. It must be added, however, that the tape was consulted later in the match when Player B asserted that Player A did not call a cross-side bank on the eight ball and the referee did not see or hear the call (the review showed that Player A did indeed call the pocket by pointing to it--the new rules requiring verbal designation were not yet in use in the league.).
The incident and the discussion(s!) afterwards ensued raised a number of questions that I submit to my highly esteemed fellow forum members for consideration.
1. Can a player make a call in a match presided over by a referee? If so, what is the best response by the referee if there is a dispute among the players on the issue?
2. Player A said afterwards (and I believe him) that he knew he had touched the ball and would have said so if asked, but that he wasn't going to call it on himself. Should he have?
3. In the second instance, where it was claimed that Player A hadn't called a pocket, should the tape have been used to verify it, considering that it hadn't been used earlier? If not, how should the situation have been resolved?
If Jay and the many other highly experienced folks can weigh in on this it would be greatly appreciated, but I look forward to hearing all viewpoints on the issue. Many thanks!!