Push shot foul?

[straightline]

Because the rules say it isn't? From WPA 6.7:

"However, if the cue ball is touching an object ball at the start of the shot, it is legal to shoot towards or partly into that ball (provided it is a legal target within the rules of the game) and if the object ball is moved by such a shot, it is considered to have been contacted by the cue ball."

Figures. Cheap fix if you ask me. Other jurisdictions define (as well as Dr. Dave to an academic degree) frozen cue balls as single entities. Hence the no push logic. A shot like Ponger's with a subsequent legal hit <by the cue ball> should be the only allowed solution.

Thanks for digging that rule up by the way.