papercut said:
Two sample populations with normal distributions, X and Y.
X has 1,000 people.
Y has 1,000,000 people.
The 99% confidence interval (let's say this represents the pros) are the elite cream of the crop in a population. In X, there will be 10 people. In Y, there will be 10,000 people.
Re-rank the elite. The elite of the elite.... In X there will be 0. In Y there will be 100.
Ignoring physical and psychological differences (of which there are plenty), it really just boils down to statistics. X are women, Y are men. More players in a population, better elite.
I'm just reiterating what others have said before...
i don't like the assumption.
is your assumption then that if there were an equal number of women playing pool as men, that there would be a concomitant number of women better than allison or karen. ie,,,if allison and karen were to play in a TOP, let me reiterate,,TOP,,,,not open, but TOP additional 62 men and they were all to play a 126 game schedule, and assuming the gals came in 48th and 49th,,,then if the pool of women were equal to men, and you had the top 64 men playing with the top 64 women, that the final standings would show an equal spread ,,,that the top 64 would not be men-heavy, and that if kk and af were 48th and 49th, that there would be another 24 women placing better than them?
more does not mean better, nor does it mean more better., because for all we know, and this assumption is as valid as yours,,,af and kk may be as good as the women can get.
another point is that your volume reasoning is only valid if women were equal to men to begin with,,,,yet this is the very point of contention in the first place. ie, why does california have more better men players than rhode island. california has a larger population and therefore will produce more better players. you can only make this assertion because men are equal to men. if california was a state full of women players, it doesn't mean california will have better players than rhode island just because there are more players