9 ball. You're 5-4 up.
Opponent misses the 7 and leaves an easy 7/8/9 run-out. He clearly says 'well that's 6-4 to you then'.
So you pick the balls up and start racking them because he verbally conceded.
He (obviously) claims that he didn't really concede - but also he should have kept his mouth shut.
What would the ruling be here? (apart from both get a life - sort it out outside etc.).
Depends what has happened earlier in the match but that isn't a "standard" point of concession. I would clarify before moving a ball.
Not saying it was in this particular case but that is a common lowlife move, to indicate a concession then claim they didn't concede. Some people do it in the hope of causing an argument and taking you out of your stride, some do it just to win one game.
Another common move when playing a tournament set is to let players rake the last ball when it is a tap in for the entire set up to the last game then call a foul when the other player assumes they don't need to hit the last ball. That can be a loss of game, a foul, or a replay. The foul is often loss of tournament if it is hill hill.
If you don't know someone very well play strictly by the rules including shooting the money ball. You can concede theirs if you like, don't let them concede yours particularly on the last game. Some are famous for waiting entire matches to pull a move. Not calling the pocket clearly is
another move. Best to follow the rules even if the other player isn't and you don't have to worry about chickenshit moves.
Hu
