i agree with honest, integrity and self-calling fouls, but, I'm going to play a little devil's advocate here.
The WPA rule reads, "If a foul is not called before the next shot begins, the foul is assumed not to have happened."
In one hole, an advantage can be gained by fouling and spotting a ball. If the opponent doesn't call a foul, is it a foul?
Does that mean I can call a foul on myself when it is actually a good hit but will be to my advantage by having a ball spotted? Imagine the argument, the shooter says he fouled and the opponent says he didn't. :nono::yikes:
Should I lose an advantage because my opponent fouled (think spot shot and tying up ball(s))?
Jus' sayin'....:grin-devilish:
If you call a foul on yourself when it didn't happen, it is the same dishonesty as not calling a real foul.
If winning is more important than personal integrity to someone, I don't want to play with them.
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