I saw this rule from BCA:
Why is it a foul when you intentionally causes it to rise off the bed of table? Someone told me, when you do this, you will surely hit the cue ball twice, that's why this is an illegal jump. But when it's accidentally, why isn't this a foul? And what about when you accidentally causes the cue ball jump over the object ball? Would it be a foul, because the only way to accidentally causes the cue ball jump over the object ball, is to dig the cue ball, so this would also be a foul?
I can understand when you accidentally causes the cue ball jump a little it isn't a foul. But is it a foul when it jumps too high?
3.26 ILLEGAL JUMPING OF BALL
It is a foul if a player strikes the cue ball below center (“digs under” or “lofts” the cue ball) and intentionally causes it to rise off the bed of the table in an effort to clear an obstructing ball. Such jumping action may occasionally occur accidentally, and such “jumps” are not to be considered fouls on their face; they may still be ruled foul strokes, if for example, the ferrule or cue shaft makes contact with the cue ball in the course of the shot.
Why is it a foul when you intentionally causes it to rise off the bed of table? Someone told me, when you do this, you will surely hit the cue ball twice, that's why this is an illegal jump. But when it's accidentally, why isn't this a foul? And what about when you accidentally causes the cue ball jump over the object ball? Would it be a foul, because the only way to accidentally causes the cue ball jump over the object ball, is to dig the cue ball, so this would also be a foul?
I can understand when you accidentally causes the cue ball jump a little it isn't a foul. But is it a foul when it jumps too high?
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