Recently, I watched a couple of players engaged in a 5 ahead one-pocket match. The set progressed and was soon hill-hill, with one side needing only one ball for the win.
However, the only shot he had was a safety play made by his opponent, with the cue-ball and the object ball about an eighth of an inch apart on the opposite end rail of his designated pocket, right near the corner. The player jacked up on the ball, trying to bank the object ball one rail to his pocket, i.e., he "pushed" the ball jacked up.
The foul crier, who needed 6 balls to win the set, was seated about 30 feet from the pocket. He cried foul, stating he saw the cue-ball move ahead of the object ball, but didn't stop. A verbal argument ensued, getting very heated.
Some folks on the rail said that if there is no witness or referee to give a fair ruling, that the decision goes to the player who shot the ball automatically.
What's the right call here, if there is one? Should the player who thought it was a foul have initially gotten a witness to make the call? Since he wasn't right on top of the shot himself and was viewing it cross-table, it was his word against the other player's.
If a player doesn't get a neutral party to judge a "fair" shot at its inception, is it acceptable for him to still cry foul?
I'd be interested to read viewpoints!
JAM

However, the only shot he had was a safety play made by his opponent, with the cue-ball and the object ball about an eighth of an inch apart on the opposite end rail of his designated pocket, right near the corner. The player jacked up on the ball, trying to bank the object ball one rail to his pocket, i.e., he "pushed" the ball jacked up.
The foul crier, who needed 6 balls to win the set, was seated about 30 feet from the pocket. He cried foul, stating he saw the cue-ball move ahead of the object ball, but didn't stop. A verbal argument ensued, getting very heated.
Some folks on the rail said that if there is no witness or referee to give a fair ruling, that the decision goes to the player who shot the ball automatically.
What's the right call here, if there is one? Should the player who thought it was a foul have initially gotten a witness to make the call? Since he wasn't right on top of the shot himself and was viewing it cross-table, it was his word against the other player's.
If a player doesn't get a neutral party to judge a "fair" shot at its inception, is it acceptable for him to still cry foul?
I'd be interested to read viewpoints!
JAM